I'm a bit late to the thread, but I guess I'll ask a question to the French speakers out there.
So, my understanding is that certain consonants when they show up at the end of the word are not pronounced, such as the T in the surname Finet.
However, what happens when that word or name is modified in some way so that what was the last letter is no longer the last letter? It is now pronounced, no?
For example. In the name Paris, when pronounced in French, the S is not pronounced. However, when you want to talk about someone from Paris, the word is modified to Parisien or Parisienne, in which case the S is now pronounced.
Also when you feminize an adjective, a final consonant that is silent in masculine, is then pronounced in the feminine after adding the E, correct? For example Petit vs Petite, or Vert vs Verte.
And lastly, in the surname of the mathematician René Descartes, the final s is not pronounced. However when you are speaking of the Cartesianism, in French the word is Cartésianisme, where that S is now pronounced.
So, my question is, when a French person's name is used to form an epithet, does this rule follow? Because if it does follow, then I would assume the T is pronounced.
Or does it follow every other rule of French pronunciation while ignoring this basic rule?
Last edited by Hakumin; 07-21-2020 at 03:49 AM..
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